In recent months I’ve increasingly heard the claim that the Latin West initially resisted the Council of Nicaea II before embracing it a few centuries after the fact.
Great analysis, Benjamin! Would you consider Pope Stephen III’s condemnation of the Iconoclast Synod of Hieria to be an act of Papal Universal Jurisdiction? Did he declare its acts null and void using the same procedure that Pope Pelagius II did for the Constantinople Synod of 587?
Great analysis, Benjamin! Would you consider Pope Stephen III’s condemnation of the Iconoclast Synod of Hieria to be an act of Papal Universal Jurisdiction? Did he declare its acts null and void using the same procedure that Pope Pelagius II did for the Constantinople Synod of 587?