A defense of the Latin custom, feat. a harmonization of John and the Synoptics on the dating of the Last Supper.
This makes a lot of sense as a way of harmonizing the gospels, but I am still unsure about one point. How can 1 Cor 5 call Christ the Passover lamb if he is sacrificed on the 15th Nisan rather than the 14th?
This makes a lot of sense as a way of harmonizing the gospels, but I am still unsure about one point. How can 1 Cor 5 call Christ the Passover lamb if he is sacrificed on the 15th Nisan rather than the 14th?