This makes a lot of sense as a way of harmonizing the gospels, but I am still unsure about one point. How can 1 Cor 5 call Christ the Passover lamb if he is sacrificed on the 15th Nisan rather than the 14th?
I'd say that's similar to asking how St. Paul can call Christ the Passover Lamb when He is a human male and not an actual lamb. The type isn't identical in every respect. Just as Christ rose the day after the old Sabbath, so He was sacrificed the day after the old Passover.
Thank you, that day-offset principle is helpful. This is the first time I have felt comfortable about the chronologies for many years! I am very grateful for your writing this.
This makes a lot of sense as a way of harmonizing the gospels, but I am still unsure about one point. How can 1 Cor 5 call Christ the Passover lamb if he is sacrificed on the 15th Nisan rather than the 14th?
I'd say that's similar to asking how St. Paul can call Christ the Passover Lamb when He is a human male and not an actual lamb. The type isn't identical in every respect. Just as Christ rose the day after the old Sabbath, so He was sacrificed the day after the old Passover.
Thank you, that day-offset principle is helpful. This is the first time I have felt comfortable about the chronologies for many years! I am very grateful for your writing this.